Quality Center Certification Questions
1 What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
D. Internet Explorer
2 Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
C. load test
3 What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
C. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: C, E
4 What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: B, C
5 Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
6 When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the
application are tested. When writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear
and accurate steps? (Select two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: C, E
7 Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
8 When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
9 What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion
10 How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
11 Click the Exhibit button.
What does the icon in the exhibit indicate in the Test Plan module, under the Test Script tab?
A. there is a test script
B. there is not a test script
C. there is a manual test case
D. the test script has changed
12 While designing the test plan tree, you accidentally delete a folder that
contained some tests that you need. Can you recover the tests?
A. no, once a test is deleted, it is gone
B. yes, the tests can be recovered from the Subject folder
C. yes, the test can be recovered from the Unattached folder
D. no, only Project Managers have permission to recover deleted tests
13 When you define tests inside of Quality Center, it is important that the tests
are accurate and traceable. What are two other key pointers when defining tests? Select two.
Answer: B, F
14 What test types can be created in Quality Center? Select three
F. wr-automated test
Answer: C, D, F
15 In order to reuse a test across other tests, must the reused test be a template
A. yes, only template tests are reusable
B. no, the test must be a VAPI test to be reusable
C. yes, template tests are reusable automated tests
D. no, tests do not need to be template tests to be reused
16 What does a live analysis graph illustrate in a visual overview?
A. all the tests in the Test Plan
B. all the cycles or releases the test is linked to
C. all the requirements linked to the specified test
D. all the tests in a specified folder in the Test Plan
17 How can you create a test plan tree?
A. convert releases to tests
B. define test folders and tests manually
C. save automated tests in Quality Center
D. define test names for each test needed
18 Can you change the values of a called test's parameters?
A. no, values are assigned at run time
B. yes, if the called test is a template test
C. no, you must delete the called test and call it again
D. yes, right-click and choose Called Test Parameters
19 When you generate an Excel report, why is it an advantage to use
A. enables the report to be saved
B. enables the user to name the report
C. enables the report to be used across projects
D. enables the report to be used for different purposes
20 Using the Excel Macro, what type of data can be imported into Quality
Center? (Select three.)
A. defects data
B. test set data
C. test plan data
D. releases data
E. test Instance data
F. requirements data
Answer: A, C, F
21 Once the Word macro is installed on your computer, what Quality Center
toolbars will Word display?
A. Test Plan, Requirements and Export
B. Requirements, Defects and Common
C. Test Plan, Requirements and Defects
D. Test Plan, Requirements and Common
22 What graph types are available in each of the Quality Center modules?
A. age and summary
B. trend and progress
C. summary and progress
D. requirements, coverage and age
23 When a predefined report is saved, what is the file extension?
24 Which modules in Quality Center provide predefined graph templates?
A. Requirements, Test Lab and Defects
B. Releases, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
C. Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defects
D. Releases, Requirements, Test Plan and Defects
25 How is data defined for use in an Excel report?
A. with an SQL query
B. with an XML query
C. with ETL data extraction
D. with a WebDataScraper
26 On the General page of the Excel Report Generator window, what name is
displayed, by default, in the designer field?
A. the project manager
B. the site administrator
C. the user currently logged in
D. the user who created the report
27 Which menu allows you to generate a predefined report?
28 What elements can be linked directly to a requirement in the releases
A. a cycle
B. release tree
C. cycle details
D. a cycle progressa cycle? progress
29 Which module, in Quality Center, starts the testing process?
30 What details about a cycle can you define in the details tab? (Select two.)
B. end date
D. release version
E. linked test sets
Answer: A, B
31 What constitutes a release folder?
A. cycles of the release
B. test plan for the release
C. releases of the application
D. requirements for the release
32 Why do you create a release tree?
A. to define the framework of releases
B. to define the workflow for the project
C. to define the requirements hierarchy
D. to define the test plan for the release
33 How many buttons are available to create a Release Tree?
34 What types of attachments can be added to a cycle? (Select three.)
B. test plans
C. clipboard image
D. release versions
E. system properties
F. linked requirements
Answer: A, C, E
35 Which module allows you to view coverage by cycle?
C. Test Plan
36 What is the function of the New Release button?
A. creates a release tree
B. creates a cycle within a release
C. creates a release within a release folder
D. creates a new Release folder in the release tree
37 What is the foundation of the Releases module?
A. the release tree
B. the cycle versions
C. the release cycles
D. the release folders
38 What is an example of an indicator column in the Defect module?
39 Where can you find an audit trail of the changes made to a defect?
A. audit tab in the Defect module
B. status column in the defect grid
C. history tab in the Defect module
D. summary column in the defect grid
40 How can you save a filter that you set in the Defect module?
A. choose Defects>Save
B. click the Favorites button
C. click the Save Filter button
D. choose Favorites>Add to Favorites
41 When defects are exported out of Quality Center, what type of file is
42 When should you use a private favorite view for defects?
A. need one more
B. use for private sessions of Quality Center
C. use for data on which only you are working
D. use for data on which your group is working
43 When you log a new defect, how is the Detected By field populated?
A. This field must be filled out as you log the defect
B. This field must be filled out after the defect is logged
C. This field is auto-populated with the user who is currently logged in
D. This field is auto-populated with the user who executed the linked test
44 Which button or menu will allow you to view additional fields in the Defects
A. View button
B. Select>View menu
C. Favorites>View menu
D. Select Columns button
45 How many defects can be associated with a requirement?
A. Any requirement can have one defect
B. Any requirement can have multiple defects
C. One for each parent requirement and child requirement
D. A parent requirement can be associated with multiple defects, but a child requirement can be associated
46 What is tracked when a defect is assigned a status?
A. the defect's priority
B. the defect's severity
C. the defect's lifecycle
D. the users to whom the defect is assigned
47 How many views are available in the Defects module?
48 What are some examples of entities that a defect can be associated?
A. Cycle, Release, Test Step, Defect
B. Release, Requirement, Test Set, Test Step
C. Requirement, Test Instance, Test Step, Defect
D. Requirement, Test Step, Test Run, Test Result
49 While running a manual test in the Manual Runner, you log a defect against
a specific step. Is that defect automatically linked to any other entities?
A. yes, indirectly linked to the test instance
B. no, a defect can be linked to only one entity
C. no, all links to other entities must be done separately
D. yes, directly to other defects linked to the test instance
50 From which module or modules can you log a defect?
B. Requirement and Defect
C. Requirement, Test Plan and Defect
D. Requirement, Test Plan, Test Lab and Defect
51 In the Defect module, what is a fixed column?
A. a column with a section list
B. a column with flexible values
C. a column that is non-scrolling
D. a column with a predetermined width
52 When searching for Similar Defects, what field or fields in each defect are
A. name and history
B. name and description
C. summary and history
D. summary and description
53 Which statement best describes the requirements traceability feature?
A. enables definition of a link between multiple requirements
B. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test
C. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a cycle
D. enables definition of a link between a requirement and a test set
54 When a requirement is assigned to a release, in which cycles is it tested?
A. all of the cycles
B. only the first cycle
C. only the last cycle
D. none of the cycles
55 What is the purpose of requirements traceability?
A. to view and establish Test coverage
B. to view cycles that are linked to the requirement
C. to view and establish linkage to other requirements
D. to view and establish what Releases are linked to the requirements
56 What are some characteristics of a useful Test Requirement? (Select two.)
Answer: D, E
57 What does the requirements tree define?
A. hierarchical relationships between requirements
B. the number of test plans needed for each requirement
C. identify defects that are associated with each requirement
D. which releases and/or cycles are linked to each requirement
58 What feature does Quality Center use to calculate the testing level for each
requirement? (Select two.)
A. risk analysis
B. impact analysis
C. requirement type
D. failure probability
E. resource availability
Answer: C, E
59 What are two steps in risk-based testing? (Select two.)
A. perform risk analysis
B. establish testing time
C. perform impact analysis
D. establish failure probability
E. establish development time
F. establish the number of testers needed
Answer: A, D
60 If a child requirement is linked to a test, what else is automatically linked to
A. the Release Cycle
B. the Parent Requirement
C. the Functional Requirement
D. the other child requirements
61 What does the Direct Cover Status of a requirement indicate?
A. the type of parent requirement
B. the execution status of linked tests
C. the component of the application covered
D. whether the requirement has any linked defects
62 What can you do under the RichContent tab in the Requirements module?
A. add, view and edit RTF content
B. add, view and edit MS Word content
C. add, view and edit MS Excel content
D. add, view and edit MS Access content
E. add, view and edit SQL statement content
63 What is the Coverage Analysis View used for in the Requirements module?
A. to identify which test sets are associated with the requirement
B. to identify and analyze the tests that are associated with the requirement
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C. to identify which releases and cycles are associated with the requirement
D. to identify and analyze which defects are associated with the requirement
64 What are some examples of the default Quality Center requirement types?
Answer: D, E, F
65 What testing levels does Quality Center define for risk-based testing?
Answer: B, C
66 What additional Quality Center modules may you have access to if
installed and/or licensed? Select all that apply.
E. business components
Answer: C, E
67 What link do you click on to log on to Quality Center 9.2?
A. Add-Ins Page
B. Quality Center
C. Site Administrator
D. Authenticate User
68 What tools does Quality Center provide for performing test data analysis?
Answer: B, C
69 What can be accomplished using the Tools Menu of the Common Toolbar?
A. define a cycle
B. log a new defect
C. switch to another project
D. open the Documentation Library
E. display the Quality Center version
Answer: B, C
70 Quality Center 9.2 provides what type of repository for all testing assets?
B. file system
D. open access
71 Where is the common toolbar located?
A. lower-left part of the window
B. upper-left part of the window
C. upper-right part of the window
D. lower-right part of the window
72 Which toolbar contains buttons for frequently used commands in the
current Quality Center module?
A. Module Toolbar
B. Standard Toolbar
C. Common Toolbar
D. Formatting Toolbar
73 How do you make a context-specific shortcut menu appear?
A. right click on an interface element
B. double click on the interface element
C. choose Shortcut from the Help menu
D. choose Context Menu from the View menu
74 What HP testing tools does Quality Center integrate with? (Select two.)
B. Open View
C. Visual API-XP
D. Performance Center
E. Change Control Management
Answer: A, C
75 How many core modules are in Quality Center 9.2?
76 In the Execution Flow tab of the Test Lab module, what does a solid blue
line between two tests indicate?
A. the previous test must pass
B. the previous test must finish
C. the test has undefined parameters
D. the second test is called from within the first
77 When defining execution conditions in a test set, what completion status
choice or choices available?
C. pass and fail
D. pass and finish
78 What must the goal of a test set meet?
A. the goal of the test plan
B. the description of the test set
C. the description of the requirement
D. the goal of the associated cycle or cycles
79 Can a test set include both manual and automated tests?
A. No, a test set must be all manual tests
B. No, a test set must be all automated tests
C. Yes, however an automated test can not follow a manual test
D. Yes, automated and manual tests may be used in the same test set
80 When developing a test plan, what should the tester be careful about and
plan for between tests?
A. execution time
B. execution control
C. automation timing
D. data dependencies
81 How do you run an automated test concurrently on multiple remote hosts in
a test set?
A. run the test locally
B. select a host group for the local machine
C. select multiple hosts for the automated test
D. add multiple instances of the test to the test set
82 Quality Center provides the framework for test execution. What are the
stages of this framework?
A. import requirements, import tests, run the tests
B. link the tests to cycles, run the tests, log defects
C. develop the test set tree, organize test sets, set test-set properties, run the tests
D. convert the test plans to test sets, set the hosts for automated scripts, run the tests
83 What are two elements of the Test Lab module? (Select two.)
A. Linked Cycles
B. Linked Defects
C. Execution Flow
D. Execution Results
E. Graph of Selected
F. Linked Requirements
Answer: B, C
84 What types of tests make up a test set?
A. smoke and integration
B. smoke and automated
C. integration and manual
D. manual and automated
85 In executing a test, what do you link to a test set?
A. a cycle
B. a defect
C. an LOB
D. a release
86 At what level is a main test set tree folder?
87 When a test set folder is linked to a cycle, are all of the test sets in the folder
linked to that cycle?
A. No, only a test set can be linked to a cycle
B. No, a test set folder can only be linked to a release
C. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to that cycle
D. Yes, all of the test sets in the folder will be linked to the cycle and all other cycles in that release
88 What is a test set?
A. a folder of test results
B. a folder of testing cycles
C. a group of tests to achieve a goal
D. a group of tests assigned to a release
89 What choices are available in Test Set Properties if any test fails?
A. Rerun the test up to 5 times
B. Run the next Test Set, Do Nothing
C. Run cleanup test before each rerun of the test
D. Do Nothing, Stop the Test Run, Rerun the Test Set
90 While defining a test set, you want to notify your Project Manager if the
permission levels on the testing box are inadequate. What is the best way to accomplish this?
A. select inadequate in the permissions field
B. ensure that the correct alert rule is in effect
C. check the appropriate checkbox in Test Set Properties>Notifications
D. email test results to the Project Manager at the completion of the test set